Sunday, November 13, 2011

What should be next step in Management of this Patient ?



A 60-year-old male with multiple CAD risk factors presents with one year history
of DOE and exertional chest pain. He has had orthopnea and one episode of
PND.
■ Laboratory findings: serum potassium 4.8; creatinine 3.0
■ ECG shows nonspecific ST- T Changes
■ Echocardiography shows a mildly dilated Left Ventricle; Ejection Fraction 25%  -30%; global hypokinesis
■ CAG reveals an 80% stenosis of proximal LAD, 85% proximal
LFX, 90% mid-RCA

How to Manage this Patient ?

  1. CTVS consultation for CABG
  2. Rest thallium test with delayed imaging
  3.  Initiation of Spironolactone therapy
  4. All of the above
Please  Leave your comments and explanations in the box below







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3 comments:

  1. 4 All of the above

    Option 1 is correct because of the findings on CAG and is the definitive treatment for his failure.

    Option 2 is needed to see the extent of reversibility in the ischaemic myocardium

    Option 3 is needed to optimize management of patient in view of recent PND episode.

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  2. This male has severe three-vessel coronary disease and cardiomyopathy with low LV systolic function. Revascularization (likely with CABG) is indicated if there is salvageable myocardium. The degree of renal failure limits initiation of aldosterone
    blocking agent at this time. So the answer is 2

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  3. now-a-days MRI imaging is preferred to rest and stress thallium. Rest thallium alone is incorrect since u get delayed distribution with thallium and false positives, to shorten the scan time one can do rest and strett sestamibi and thallium combination thereby the patient does not need to come back the next day.

    ReplyDelete